Consider M is space of continuous functions (on $[a,b]$) with condition: $f(a)=f(b)$ . Is it complete metric space with $\mu(f,g) =\max\underset{x\in [a,b]}{|(f(x)-g(x))|} $?
In my opinion it's true. But I'm not understanding how I can prove that if $\forall n f_n(a)=f_n(b) \Rightarrow f(a)=f(b)$?
Thanks.
If $\mu(f_n,f) \to 0$ then $f_n(x) \to f(x)$ for every $x \in [a,b]$. In particular this is true for $x=a$ and $x=b$. Hence $f(a)=f(b)$. [In the equation $f_n(a)=f_n(b)$ take limit as $ n \to \infty$].