Can someone please explain why :
"Residue at a finite point is zero if the function is analytic at that point".
Some explanation going by the definition or Laurent's expansion will be helpful.
Can someone please explain why :
"Residue at a finite point is zero if the function is analytic at that point".
Some explanation going by the definition or Laurent's expansion will be helpful.
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Here is the actual definition of a residue: Given a function $f$ which is holomorphic in a punctured neighborhood $\dot U(a)$, the residue of $f$ at $a$ is defined by $${\rm res}(f|a):={1\over 2\pi i}\int_{\gamma_r} f(z)\ dz\ ,$$ where $\gamma_r:=\partial D_r(a)\subset U(a)$ is the boundary of a small disk $D_r(a)$ centered at $a$.
When $f$ is analytic in all of $D_R(a)$ for some $R>0$ then Cauchy's theorem guarantees that ${\rm res}(f|a)=0$.