Let $\mathbb{Q}^+$ denote the set of positive rational numbers. Let $f : \mathbb{Q}^+ \to \mathbb{Q}^+$ be a function such that $$f \left( x + \frac{y}{x} \right) = f(x) + \frac{f(y)}{f(x)} + 2y$$ for all $x,$ $y \in \mathbb{Q}^+$. Find all possible values of $f \left( \frac{1}{3} \right)$.
If I substitute in $x=y$, then I get $f(x+1)-f(x)=2x+1$. This suggests that $f(x)=x^2$ works, and one possible value of $f \left( \frac{1}{3} \right)$ is $\frac{1}{9}$. Did I miss anything?
Yes.
But what you didn't do was prove that you had all possible values. If somebody told you to solve $x^2=1$, you wouldn't say $1$ and leave it. You would prove that $1$ is the only solution, or find more solutions and prove that you'd found all of them.
A similar things applies here. The question asks for you to find all possible values. How do you know you have all of them?
Here's a quick sketch of how to prove that you have all solutions: Set $y:=y+x$ and subtract the original equation to get $$2x+2\frac{y}{x}+1=\frac{f(y+x)-f(y)}{f(x)}+2x$$Rearrange and simplify:
$$2\frac{y}{x}f(x)+f(x)=f(y+x)-f(y)$$ Repeat the same trick: set $y:=y+1$ and subtract that last equation to get $$2\frac{f(x)}{x}=2y+2x+1-2y-1$$ so $f(x)=x^2$ as required. Just verify this works by substituting back into the original equation.