If $f,g,h$ are functions defined on $\mathbb{R},$ the function $(f\circ g \circ h)$ is even:
i) If $f$ is even.
ii) If $g$ is even.
iii) If $h$ is even.
iv) Only if all the functions $f,g,h$ are even.
Shall I take different examples of functions and see?
Could anyone explain this for me please?
Consider the simpler case of two functions $f$ and $g$ and note that if $g$ is even then $f(g(-x))=f(g(x))$. Can you take it from here?
P.S. In order to show that a proposition is true we need a proof otherwise a counter-example suffices.