I have the following question.
If I have two complex valued functions, $f,g$. I know that if both are analytic then $f\circ g$ is analytic (if domain/codomain matches). Now I thought about if $g$ is not analytic, can we then immediately deduce that $f\circ g$ is not analytic neither? If not is there a counterexample?
Because if I consider for example $\sin(\bar z)$ then $\bar z$ is not analytic and also $\sin(\bar z)$ isn't but $\sin$ is analytic.
Thanks for your help.
Take $f$ to be the constant funciton equal to $0$ and $g$ to be your favourite non-analytic function. Then, $f \circ g$ is constant equal to $0$, and hence analytic.