Currently I'm self studying functional analysis, namely unitary operators. In the text, the author gives the following proposition without proof:
Proposition: Let $U\colon H\to H$ be an unitary operator, i.e. $\langle Ux, Uy \rangle = \langle x,y \rangle$ for all $x,y\in H$ and $\text{Im}U=H$. Then $UU^*=I=U^*U$; that is, $U$ is invertible and $U^{-1}=U^*$.
I'm unsure how to show that $UU^*=I=U^*U$; however, under the assumption it holds, I believe I can show that $U^{-1}=U^*$ with the following argument:
The dual of $U$, we call it $U^*$, is the unique operator that satisfies $\langle Ux, y \rangle = \langle x, U^*y \rangle$ or all $x,y\in H$. Notice $$ \langle Ux, y \rangle=\langle Ux, Iy \rangle=\langle Ux, UU^{-1}y \rangle=\langle x, U^{-1}y \rangle. $$ Whence $U^*=U^{-1}$.
As mentioned in the comments, you assumed that $U$ is invertible, but this needs to be shown first. Rather, proceed as follows: