Compound interest formula and continuously compounded interest formula derivation

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My textbook gives the formula for compound interest as:

$A\left( t\right) =P\left( 1+\dfrac {r}{n}\right) ^{nt}$

Where: P = The principal, r=the annual rate of interest, n= the frequency of compounding, t=Time in years and A is the total interest accrued over time.

It then goes onto show how if we compound £1 continuously at a rate of 100% for 1 year, for greater and greater values of $n$ we get:

$\left( 1+\dfrac {1}{n}\right) ^{n}\rightarrow e$

And then uses this to derive the formula for continuously compounded interest:

$A\left( t\right) =Pe^{rt}$

The book says it uses "a little calculus and the definition of e" to derive this, but how exactly does it do this?

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Let's see. The limit claim is pretty widely discussed on MSE, so I'm assuming you're willing to believe that the limit does approach $e$. Once you have that, you can look at the formula $$ A_n(t) = P \left(1+ \frac{r}{n}\right)^{nt} $$ and do a little fiddling. Let $m = \dfrac{n}{r}$, so that $n = rm$. Then rewrite: $$ A_n(t) = P \left(1+ \frac{r}{n}\right)^{nt} = P \left(1 + \frac{1}{m}\right)^{mrt}= P \left(\left(1 + \frac{1}{m}\right)^m \right)^{rt} $$

Now as $n \to \infty$, the thing inside the large parentheses approaches $e$, so you get

$$ A(t) = Pe^{rt}. $$

As for the main limit, the usual approach is to say you want to find $$ L = \lim_{n \to \infty} \left(1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^n $$ but instead, you compute \begin{align} \ln L &= \lim_{n \to \infty} \ln \left(1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^n \\ &= \lim_{n \to \infty} n \ln \left(1 + \frac{1}{n} \right) \\ &= \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\ln \left(1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)}{1/n}, \end{align} which you can evaluate with L'hopital's rule (take derivative of top and bottom, since both go towards 0): \begin{align} \ln L &= \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\ln \left(1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)}{1/n} \\ &= \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\frac{1}{1 + \frac{1}{n}}\left(\frac{-1}{n^2}\right)} {\frac{-1}{n^2}}\\ &= \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{1 + \frac{1}{n}}\\ &= 1. \end{align} Since the natural log of your limit is $1$, the limit itself must be $e$.$$$$$$