I am trying to compute this integral:
$$I = \int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{e^x + x}dx$$
I don't see any obvious ways to integrate this using real methods.
So, now I'm trying to integrate with using complex analysis, I tried to transform the equation with $z = e^{-x}$ and get
$$I = \int_0^1 \frac{1}{1-z\log(z)}dz$$
I see that a pole of the above is $z = \frac{1}{W(1)}$, which is the Lambert W function
When I evaluate the residue, I get the value 0.
$$\text{Res}_{z \rightarrow \frac{1}{W(1)}}\left(\frac{1}{1-z \log (z)},f(z)\right) = 0$$
Assistance on next steps and a solution would be appreciated.
Of course, by Taylor series we have $$ I = \int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{dx}{x+e^x}\,dz = \int_{0}^{1}\sum_{n\geq 0}(z\log z)^n\,dz = \sum_{n\geq 0}\frac{(-1)^n n!}{(n+1)^{n+1}} \tag{1}$$ and by integration by parts
$$ I = \int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{1}{e^x+1}\cdot\frac{e^x+1}{e^x+x}\,dx = \int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{e^x \log(e^x+x)}{(e^x+1)^2}\,dx \tag{2}$$ so $I$ has the following representation
$$ I = \log(2)+\sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n}\int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{x^{n+1}\,dx}{e^{(n-1)x}(e^x+1)^2}\tag{3} $$ where the involved integrals depend on values of the Riemann $\zeta$ function. However, $(3)$ is not a huge improvement over $(1)$. We may apply series acceleration techniques to $(1)$ in order to get $I\approx 0.8063956162$ really soon, but my opinion is that we cannot really hope in something "nicer" than the RHS of $(1)$.