Let $f:[-1,1] \to \mathbb R$ be continuous a.e (and assumed to be bounded, if that helps), with a jump-discontinuity at $0$ and set $$ c:=\frac{f(0^-)+f(0^+)}{2}. $$ For any integer $n \ge 2$, define $a_n$ by $$ a_n := \mathbb E[f(x_1)f(x_2)], $$ where $x=(x_1,\ldots,x_n)$ is uniform on the unit-sphere in $\mathbb R^n$.
Question. Is it true that $\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n = c^2$ ?
For example, if the function $f$ is given by
$$
f(x) := \begin{cases}\cos^{13}(x),&\mbox{ if }x > 0,\\x^2-5,&\mbox{ else,}\end{cases}
$$
then $f$ has a jump discontinuity at $0$ with $c=-2$, and numerical experiments show that $a_n \to 4=c^2$.

Let $g$ be a function such that $g(x)=f(x)+f(-x)$ for all $x \ne 0$ and $g(0)=2c$. So $g$ is continuous at $0$.
Let $(Y_n)$ be a sequence of independent standard normal random variables.
For any $n$, let $(X_1^n,X_2^n,...,X_n^n)$ be a random vector uniformly distributed on $\mathbb{S}^{n-1}$.
Then $$(X_1^n,X_2^n) \stackrel{\text{law}}{=}(\tilde{X}_1^n,\tilde{X}_2^n)$$ where $$\tilde{X}_i^n := \frac{Y_i}{\sqrt{Y_1^2+\dots +Y_n^2}} \quad \text{ for } i = 1,2$$ Besides, by law of large numbers, $\tilde{X}_1^n$ and $\tilde{X}_2^n$ converge almost surely to $0$. Thus, $$4\mathbb{E}( f(X_1^n)f(X_2^n))= \mathbb{E}( g(X_1^n)g(X_2^n))=\mathbb{E}( g(\tilde{X}_1^n)g(\tilde{X}_2^n))\xrightarrow{n \rightarrow \infty} \mathbb{E}( g(0)^2) =c^2$$