I know that if $W=X+Y$ then $$f_{W}(t) = t\mathbf{1}_{[0,1]}(t)+(2-t)\mathbf{1}_{(1,2]}(t).$$ Thus, we want to find $P(W>Z)=P(W-Z>0).$ Using Bayes Theorem we get that $$P(W-Z>0) = P(W-Z>0|W\leq 1)P(W\leq 1)+P(W-Z>0|W> 1)P(W> 1)$$ $$=\int_{0}^{1} \int_{0}^{w} dz \cdot P(W\leq 1)+P(Z\leq 1)P(W>1)$$ $$=\frac{1}{2}\cdot \frac{1}{2}+1\cdot \frac{1}{2}=\frac{3}{4}.$$
Is this calculation correct?
Edit
Based on the suggestion made in the comment we consider the following:
$$P(W>Z)=\int_{0}^{2}P(Z<w)f_{W}(w)dw$$ $$=\int_{0}^{1}w^2\cdot dw+\int_{1}^{2}(2-w)\cdot dw=\frac{1}{3}+2-\frac{3}{2}=5/6.$$ Does this make sense?
$x+y > z\\ 0\le z \le 1$
Either $x +y > 1$ and we can ignore $z$ or $x+y\le 1$ and $z < x+y$
$\int_0^1\int_0^{1-x}\int_0^{x+y} dz\ dy\ dx + \int_0^1\int_{1-x}^{1} dy\ dx\\ \frac 13 + \frac 12$