I tried to come up with the answer without success. I hope somebody can help me.
Given $$X∼Exp(1)$$ $$Z∼Bernoulli(1/4)$$ $$W=(-1)^ZX$$
I have to compute the CDF of $W$.
I know that the total probability rule has to be applied so:
$$P(W\leq x)=\frac{1}{4}P(W\leq x|Z=1)+\frac{3}{4}P(W\leq x|Z=0) $$ but when $Z=1$ then $W=-X$ and I don't know how to proceed as the exponential distribution is only defined for positive values. Maybe there's a wrong assumption at some point?
Graphical comment:
A 50-50 mixture of $X \sim \mathsf{Exp}(1)$ with $-X$ is a standard Laplace distribution, also called a 'double exponential' distribution.
What you have is a mixture of $X$ and $-X$ that is not 50-50.
You have made a reasonable start. Maybe seeing a histogram of a large simulated sample from your distribution will help you find the right path to finishing your analytic solution.
A quarter of the probability in your distribution lies below $0.$