I am trying to show that $\mathbb{E}(\text{max}(X-u,0))=\int_u^\infty(x-u)dF_X(x)=\int_{u}^{\infty}(1-F_X(x))dx$
for $X$ positive r.v. and $u>0$.
I already know how to prove that $\mathbb{E}(X)=\int_{0}^{\infty}(1-F_X(y))dy$
and here I show my first approach which I would like to know if it's correct, which goes in the opposite direction of the above equality:
$\mathbb{E}(\text{max}(X-u,0))=\int_{u}^{\infty}(1-F_X(x))dx=\int_{u}^{\infty}\mathbb P(X>x)dx=\int_u^\infty\int_u^\infty1_{\{z>x>u\}}\mathbb{P}(X\in dz)dx=\int_u^\infty\int_u^\infty1_{\{z>x>u\}}dx\mathbb{P}(X\in dz)=\int_u^\infty\int_u^zda\mathbb{P}(X\in dz)=\int_u^\infty(z-u)\mathbb{P}(X\in dz)=\int_u^\infty(z-u)dF_X(z)$
I tried with a second way which I report here but I am having more troubles because I am not sure of where to integrate:
$\mathbb{E}(\text{max}(X-u,0))=\int_u^\infty(x-u)f_X(x)dx=\int_u^\infty\int_0^{x-u}1f_X(x)dydx=\int_u^\infty\int_{y-u}^\infty f_X(x)dxdy=\int_u^\infty(1-F_X(y-u))dy$
edit: second try of developing the second reasoning:
$\mathbb{E}(\text{max}(X-u,0))=\int_u^\infty(x-u)f_X(x)dx=\int_u^\infty\int_u^{x}1f_X(x)dydx=\int_u^\infty\int_{y}^\infty f_X(x)dxdy=\int_u^\infty(1-F_X(y))dy$
Setting $Y:=\max\left(X-u,0\right)$ it is clear that $Y$ is a nonnegative random variable so that: $$\mathbb{E}Y=\int_{0}^{\infty}1-F_{Y}\left(x\right)dx$$ For $x>0$ we find $1-F_{Y}\left(x\right)=P\left(Y>x\right)=P\left(X>u+x\right)=1-F_{X}\left(u+x\right)$ leading to: $$\mathbb{E}Y=\int_{0}^{\infty}1-F_{Y}\left(x\right)dx=\int_{0}^{\infty}1-F_{X}\left(u+x\right)dx=\int_{u}^{\infty}1-F_{X}\left(x\right)dx$$