The answer depends on the sum $n+m$. If $n+m<-1$ Then the integral is zero.
\begin{gather}
f(z)=z^n(1-z)^m\\
I=-2\pi i\underset{z=\infty}{\rm res}f(z)=2\pi i c_{-1}
\end{gather}
There are no poles outside the contour.
Here, $c_{-1}$ is the coefficient of $f(z)$ expansion in the vicinity of the infinity.
The leading behavior of $f(z)$ is
\begin{gather}
f(z)=(-1)^mz^{n+m}\ \ z\rightarrow\infty.
\end{gather}
Therefore $c_{-1}=0$ unless $m+n=-1$.
If $m+n=-1$ then:
\begin{gather}
c_{-1}=(-1)^m\ \Rightarrow\ I=2\pi i(-1)^m
\end{gather}
P.S.
We have some videos with explanations about contour integrals.
Check out our page:
https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCcOPzqeuB8GTt1zfh6JKbSA
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You said $n,m\lt0$. By Cauchy's integral formula, I get $2\pi i (1+1)=4\pi i$, when $n=m=-1$.
For other negative values of the exponents, it appears to be more complicated, and I don't see how to do it with CIF. Perhaps you could use the residue theorem.
The answer depends on the sum $n+m$. If $n+m<-1$ Then the integral is zero. \begin{gather} f(z)=z^n(1-z)^m\\ I=-2\pi i\underset{z=\infty}{\rm res}f(z)=2\pi i c_{-1} \end{gather} There are no poles outside the contour. Here, $c_{-1}$ is the coefficient of $f(z)$ expansion in the vicinity of the infinity. The leading behavior of $f(z)$ is \begin{gather} f(z)=(-1)^mz^{n+m}\ \ z\rightarrow\infty. \end{gather} Therefore $c_{-1}=0$ unless $m+n=-1$.
If $m+n=-1$ then: \begin{gather} c_{-1}=(-1)^m\ \Rightarrow\ I=2\pi i(-1)^m \end{gather} P.S. We have some videos with explanations about contour integrals. Check out our page: https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCcOPzqeuB8GTt1zfh6JKbSA