I came across this problem on my exam and even after three hours of trying I am not able to get through the problem.
I think it can be expressed as the limit of a sum but I am not sure and all my attempts to do the same have failed.
Question:
If the limit $$\lim_{n \to \infty} \left[\left(\prod_{i=1}^{n}i!\right)^{\frac{1}{n^2}} (n^{x})\right]$$ exists and is finite what are the possible values of $x$ and the corresponding values of limit?
I got something like $$e^{\ln{1\over n}\displaystyle\sum_{r=1}^n\left[1-{r-1\over n}\ln\left({r\over n}\right)\right]}$$ but I am having trouble with that r-1 over there.
Can this be expressed as a Riemann sum?
(So recently all the answers I have got seem to be skipping steps I get that all these people are professional in their own fields but can you please try to write answers for someone who has considerably low IQ than yourself, thanks for the same)
If the Riemann sum is convergent, that means that the left Riemann sum limit is the same as the right Riemann sum limit. That means $$\lim_{n\to \infty}\frac1n\sum_{r=1}^n \frac{r-1}n\ln\frac{r-1}n=\lim_{n\to \infty}\frac1n\sum_{r=1}^n \frac{r}n\ln\frac{r}n$$ Now just use the squeeze theorem, since each term in $\frac{r-1}{n}\ln\frac rn$ is between the corresponding terms in the left and right Riemann sums.