Let $X$ a smooth projective algebraic curve of genus $g$ over $k$. ($k$ is an algebraically closed field of characteristic $0$).
I want to compute $\pi_{et}(X,x)^{\operatorname{ab}}$.
I'm trying to understand the proof presented here at page 28. http://math.univ-lille1.fr/~borne/Recherche/pisa.pdf
Here are the steps of the proof:
It is enough to understand $\operatorname{Hom}(\pi_{et}(X,x),A)$ where $A$ is a finite abelian group.
$\operatorname{Hom}(\pi_{et}(X,x),A) = H^1(X,A)$
and we can stick to the case $A = \mu_n$.
Using Kummer theory $H^1(X, \mu_n) = (\mathbb{Z}/n)^{2g}$
So, we get $\pi_{et}(X,x)^{\operatorname{ab}}= (\hat{\mathbb{Z}})^{2g}$
I understand all the steps except the first and last step. Can you someone why it is enough to understand $\operatorname{Hom}(\pi_{et},\mu_n)$? And we exactly in last step we get $\pi_{et}(X,x)^{\operatorname{ab}}= (\hat{\mathbb{Z}})^{2g}$?
It seems they are claiming $$\pi_{et}(X,x)^{\operatorname{ab}} = \underset{n}{\varprojlim} \operatorname{Hom}(\pi_{et}(X,x),\mu_n) $$?
Why is the last statement true? Does it hold for any profinite group?