If we know $E(Y) = E( E( Y \mid X ) )$, and $X$ and $Y$ are independent, I am wondering whether $E(Y)$ is still equal to $E( E( Y \mid X, f(X) ) )$, where $f(X)$ is an approximation of $Y$?
2026-04-18 17:46:33.1776534393
Conditional expectation with 3 random variables
73 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
2
Hint:
For any measurable function $f$
$$E(Y|X, f(X))=E(Y|X)$$(it does not require $X$ and $Y$ be independent)
It is enough to show for any measurable function $f$,
$$\sigma(X, f(X))=\sigma(X)$$.