We know that $E(Y), E(X), E(YZ)$ exist and $E(Z|X,Y) = E(Z|X)$. We have prove that $E(YZ|X) = E(Y|Z) E(Z|X)$.
So the solution goes: \begin{align*} E(YZ|X) & = E[E(YZ|X,Y)|X] \\ & = E[Y E(Z|X,Y) | X]\\ & = E[Y E(Z|X) | X]\\ & = E(Y|Z) E(Z|X) \end{align*}
My question is: why does the first equality $E(YZ|X) = E[E(YZ|X,Y)|X]$ (and than the second) hold?
Thank you.
Proof: Given (|,)=(|)
this means that P(Z|X,Y)=P(Z|X).
Now,
P(Z|X,Y)=$\frac{P(Z,Y|X)}{P(Y|X)}$
for this to be equal to P(Z|X),
P(Z,Y|X) should be equal to P(Z|X)*P(Y|X),
this implies that Y and Z are independent.
If two rvs A,B are independent then E(A,B)=E(A)*E(B)
Therefore E(Z,Y|X)=E(Z|X)*E(Y|X).
In your case, the first equality holds because of Law of total expectation. According to LOTUS (Law of total expectation),
E(Y) = $E_y(E(Y|X))$
Let YZ|X = A E(YZ|X) = E(A) = $E_y(E(A|Y)) = E_y(E(YZ|XY)) = E_y((Y|X) * E(Z|XY)) = E_y((Y|X) * E(Z|X)) = E(Y|X) * E(Z|X)$