For any r.v.s $X$ and $Y$:
$$E(Y|E(Y|X)) = E(Y|X)$$
But I cannot seem to be able to prove this. I tried using Adam's Law with extra conditioning ($E(Y|X) = E(E(Y|X,Z)|Z)$) but I don't seem to get anywhere with it.
What I tried is the following:
$$g(X) = E(Y|X)$$ $$E(Y|g(X)) = E(E(Y|X,g(X))|g(X))$$ Since the event $X$ happened and $g(X)$ happened are equivalent, conditioning on both $X$ and $g(X)$ is the same as conditioning on only one of them. Is there any intuitive interpretation of this ?
Does this also mean that conditioning on $X$ or any function $g$ of $X$ is the same ?
This is a special case of the Tower Property of Conditional Expectations, which asserts that if $\mathcal F_1\subset\mathcal F_2$ then $$ E[E[Y|\mathcal F_1]|\mathcal F_2] = E[E[Y|\mathcal F_2]|\mathcal F_1] = E[Y|\mathcal F_1]. $$ Use the second of these equalities, with $\mathcal F_1=\sigma(E[Y|X])$ and $\mathcal F_2=\sigma(X)$.