I have the following statement:
Prove or disprove if $P(A_1 | A_2) = P(A_1)$ then $P(A_1 | A_2, A_3) = P(A_1 | A_3)$
I had tried things like:
$P(A_1 | A_{2,3})=\frac{P(A_{1,3})}{P(A_{2,3})} = \frac{P(A_3 | A_{1,2})P(A_{1,2})}{P(A_{2,3})}$
unsuccessfully.
Any hints?
The first example you should typically try for a problem like this is the following:
Uniform distribution over $\{1,2,3,4\}$... $A_1 = \{1,2\},A_2=\{1,3\},A_3=\{1,4\}$. (Equivalently worded with coins: Flip two coins. $A_1$ is that the first flip is heads, $A_2$ the second flip is heads, $A_3$ is that the two flips match).
This is a famous counterexample for many basic problems involving independence.
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