I'm having trouble gaining intuition as to why the answer is 2/3 as opposed to 1/2.
Here is the question:
Alice has five coins in a bag: two coins are normal, two are double-headed, and the last one is double-tailed. She reaches into the bag and randomly pulls out a coin. The coin lands and shows heads face-up. What is the probability that the face-down side is heads?
So our sample space starts off as {H,T H,T H,H H,H T,T}
Given that face-up is {H} our probability will be conditioned on the event
{H,T H,T H,H H,H }occurs, which leaves these possibilities -> {H, H, T, T}.
Intuitively speaking, shouldn't the answer be 2/4?
The answer uses law of total probability to get the answer, which makes sense mathematically, but I don't get what's wrong with my logic in the intuitive answer.
Thank you.
You are of course correct that it can only be one of the four coins as indicated, but when you say that the sample space $HT, HT, HH, HH$ leaves as options $T,T,H,H$ you are effectivly assuming that of the double-headed coins, you could only have gotten the 'first' head being face-up. But since the 'second' one could be the one that's face-up as well, your possible outcomes for the face-down side are $T,T,H,H,H,H$