Consider a multivariate function \begin{equation} f(x;x_1,...,x_n)=\frac{g(x;x_1,...,x_n)}{\prod_{i=1}^n (x-x_i)}, \end{equation} where $g$ is a function, not necessarily a polynomial, which is well-behaved in the limits $x_i\rightarrow x$ (say it is $\mathcal{C}^\infty$). Is it possible to state that $f$ is finite in all the limits $x_i\rightarrow x$ if \begin{equation} c_{j_1,...,j_n}=\lim_{\{x_i\rightarrow x\}}\Bigg[\frac{d^j}{dx_1^{j_1}...dx_n^{j_n}}\prod_{i=1}^n (x-x_i) f\Bigg]=0, \ \ \forall j_1,...,j_n \ \text{ such that } \ j_1+...+j_n=j, \ \forall j\le n. \end{equation} This is my main question and deserving of the "useful click" thingy.
Now for my second question, let $v^\star\in\mathbb{R}$, $t_i:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ and $t_1(v^\star)=t_2(v^\star)$. Under what conditions is it true (I'm happy to also look at suggested literature) that \begin{equation} \lim_{v\rightarrow v^\star}\lim_{t\rightarrow t_1(v)} h(t)=\lim_{v\rightarrow v^\star}\lim_{t\rightarrow t_2(v) }h(t)? \end{equation}
I'll answer your first question in this post. I am still not completely sure of my interpretation, but rather than continue to play a game of 20 questions, I'll just take a stab at it.
First, let me introduce you to multi-index notation. A multi-index is a tuple $\alpha = (\alpha_1, \alpha_2, ..., \alpha_n) \in \Bbb N^n$ (where I am including $0 \in \Bbb N$). Define $|\alpha| := \sum_i \alpha_i$, and define $$\partial^{\alpha}g := \dfrac{\partial^{|\alpha|}g}{\partial x^\alpha} := \dfrac{\partial^{|\alpha|}g}{\partial x_1^{\alpha_1}\ldots\partial x_n^{\alpha_n}}$$ It makes for a much cleaner notation than you are using. Your condition then becomes $$\partial^\alpha g(x,x, ..., x) = 0 \quad \forall \alpha\text{ with }|\alpha| \le n$$ (assuming $g$ is at least $C^n$, so the limit is the same as the function value).
There some other ways this problem can be simplified notationally - which just makes it easier to deal with. First, $x$ is just a constant in this problem, not a variable, so there is no reason to include it in the parameter list. Also, instead of having the $x_i$ all converge to the same value, you can generalize the problem by giving them each their own limits $a_i$. This also frees up $x$, which can now be used to represent $x = (x_1, x_2, ..., x_n)$. Similarly, call $a = (a_1, a_2, ..., a_n)$.
So we have an $a \in \Bbb R^n$, a neigbhorhood $U$ of $a$, and a function $g \in C^n(U)$ which satisfies $\partial^\alpha g(a) = 0$ for all multi-indexes $\alpha$ with $|\alpha| < n$. The function $f$ satisfies $$f(x) = \dfrac {g(x)}{\prod_{i=1}^n(x_i - a_i)}, \quad x \in U, \forall i, x_i \ne a_i$$
And as I understand it, your question is whether this is enough to show for each $i$, that $\lim_{x \to a} f(x)$ converges to a finite value.
The answer is no. For an example, let $a = \mathbf 0$ and $g(x) = \|x\|^2 = \sum_i x_i^2$ then $$f(x) = \dfrac {\sum_i x_i^2}{\prod_i x_i}$$ Note that $g(x) = 0$ only for $x = \mathbf 0$. But the denominator of $f$ is $0$ wherever $x_1 = 0$. This means $f$ is unbounded in every neighborhood of $\mathbf 0$, so $\lim_{x \to \mathbf 0} f(x)$ does not exist.
What you actually need for this to hold is $g(x) = 0$ whenever $x_i = a_i$ for some $i$, and $g \in C^n(U)$. This insures that for all points with an $x_i = a_i$, the limit of $f$ will just be a finite multiple of $\frac{\partial g}{\partial x_i}$. Since the partial derivative is finite by the requirement $g\in C^n(U)$, $f$ must be finite also.