Confused about textbooks reasoning for cauchy estimate

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Suppose we have that $$f(z)=(z^3+1)e^{z^2}$$ on the unit disk.

My textbook says,

"obviously"

$$|f(z)| \le 2 |e^{z^2}|=e^{x^2-y^2} \le e$$ for all $z \in D(0,1)$

So I fully understand where the 2 comes from but I am not so sure about the $|e^{z^2}|$

$$e^{z^2}=e^{x^2-y^2+2xyi}=e^{x^2-y^2}e^{2xyi}$$

So my thoughts are maybe that the norm of $e^{2xyi}=1$ because it can be written using euler formula and then it will follow from Pythagoras.

But if that is the case, where does the 2 go in the first estimate?

So in the comments I explain why I am still confused on what is correct and not