Confusion about separablity in the case of $(Lip((a,b)),\lVert\cdot\rVert_{\infty})$

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Prove or disprove: $(Lip((a,b)),\lVert\cdot \rVert_{\infty})$ is separable.

My attempt: Since in a metric space any subspace of a separabale space is separable, and $(\mathcal{C}^0([a,b]),\lVert\cdot \rVert_{\infty})$ is separable (and it is obviously a metric space), we conclude $(Lip((a,b),\lVert\cdot \rVert_{\infty})$ is separable.

I had some doubts about this proof becuase I've read that, in general, only open subspaces of a separable space are separable: but since in this contest we're dealing with metric spaces, which have more structure, any subspace of a separable space is separable.

Thus I'd like to understand if my proof works fine and what I've written in the second paragraph is true. Thanks in advance.

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The space is separable. Take a specific dense set of $C^{0}([a,b])$, polynomials, and simply point out that these live in Lip([a,b]) because they are $C^{1}([a,b])$ and so have bounded first derivatives (on $[a,b]$). The proof (if it exists) would have to be different if you allowed infinite intervals.