Confusion over term "uniformly distributed" in a probability problem

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I'm trying to determine a joint PDF for random variables $X$ and $Y$ in this problem:

$(X,Y)$ is uniformly distributed on the subset of $\mathbb R^2$, defined by $0<X<2$ and $0 <Y<X^3$.

I'm not sure I understand what's meant by "uniformly distributed". Are they saying all valid $(X,Y)$ combinations have equal probability? How does one even begin to define a joint PDF for this?

Would it be something like

$f_{X,Y}(x,y) = \begin{cases}k,&0<X<2, 0 <Y<X^3 \\0,& \text{otherwise} \end{cases}$ Where $k$ is some positive constant

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It means

$$f_{X,Y}(x,y) = \begin{cases}k,&0<X<2, 0 <Y<X^3 \\0,& \text{otherwise} \end{cases}$$

where $k$ is a positive constant.

To find $k$, we have to find the area of the support.

we have $$k^{-1}= \int_0^2 x^3 \, dx$$