Confusion regarding the range of a mapping

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I have recently read the following statement which I do not understand:

Each function $w\mapsto h(x,w)$ has range $Y$.

As far as I understand "$\mapsto$" denotes a mapping. How are they defining the function(s)? Is there a function for each $w$, and each of these functions has the same range?

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For each fixed $x$ there is a function $f_x$ with variable $w$ defined as $f_x(w)=h(x,w)$.

The statement then says that $\forall x,x': \operatorname{ran}(f_x) = \operatorname{ran}(f_{x'})$.

Or in a more formal way:

$$\forall x,x': \forall w : \exists w': h(x,w)=h(x',w')$$

which comes down to the same thing.