I'm in need of some help with this problem. Consider an urn that contains $4$ blue and $7$ red balls. First one ball is selected, and then a second ball is selected without replacement.
(a) What is the probability that at least $1$ red ball is chosen?
$\displaystyle\frac{\binom72\cdot\binom41}{\binom{11}2}=\frac{28}{55}$
(b) What is the probability that the second ball chosen is red, given the that the first ball chosen was red?
$\displaystyle\frac{\binom72}{\binom{11}2}=\frac{21}{55}$
(c) What is the probability that the second ball chosen is red, given that the first ball chosen was not red?
$\displaystyle1-\frac{\binom71\cdot\binom41}{\binom{11}2}=\frac{27}{55}$
(a) The probability that no red balls are chosen, i.e. the probability that two blue balls are chosen, is $$\frac{4}{11}\frac{3}{10}$$ The probability that at least one red ball is chosen is therefore $$1-\frac{4}{11}\frac{3}{10}$$
(b) If the first ball was chosen red, there are then $6$ more red balls out of $10$ total, so the probability of selecting a red ball second is $\frac{6}{10}$
(c) Similar to (b). If the first ball chosen was blue, there are then $7$ red balls remaining and $10$ total, so the probability of selecting a red ball second is $\frac{7}{10}$