According to the definition of Hilbert-style systems, proofs should be constructed only by applying axioms and rules of inference.
In practice, most proof that I have seen use the 'suppose' or 'assume' construct. That is, they check the cases in which a given variable is true or false.
For example take the following proof that (p → q) → (¬p ∨ q)
if p
q (p → q)
-p ∨ q ( a → a ∨ b)
if -p
-p ∨ q ( a → a ∨ b)
Two questions regarding this:
1 Is this rule permitted to be used in Hilbert systems.
2a And if it is, why is it missing from the descriptions?
2b If it is not, is there a way to do the same thing with axioms and rules of inference (you can use the abore theorem as an example)?
Let me explain one by one. First, in mathematical logic, for example, first order logic, there are two kinds of proofs in fact: one is called proof and used for theorems of the form $\vdash\varphi$, another is called deduction of the form $\Gamma\vdash\varphi$ of which formulas may be called assumptions or premisis. Although the second kind has a different name, both kinds are called proof in mathematical practice.
For your question 1, in fact any rule preserving truth could be added into the set of inference rules only if it is intuitive and simple enough. Or equivalently, any valid formula could be transform into a rule to be used as an inference rule only if it is intuitive and simple enough. In this way, the proof and deduction sequences could be simplified a lot. In fact, we have done so in mathematical logic, and some meta theorems about deduction and deduction rules are proved towards that purpose.
For your question 2a, there are possibly two reasons that why such rules are not added into the set of inference rules in mathematical logic: (1) such rules are not as intuitive and simple as $\mathsf{MP}$ (most of textbooks choose $\mathsf{MP}$ only) although they are seems to be quite intuitive and simple; (2) if we add many rules into the set of inference rules, then the proof (not the proof defined in first order logic but like the actual proof in mathematical practice) to some meta theorems (for example, the soundness theorem) about mathematical logic would become quite complicated and the basic textbooks about mathematical logic would have more pages.
Now, for your question 2b, the answer is certainly YES. But when you do this, please make sure that it should be appropriate for your actual purpose.
By the way, my book about mathematical logic which isn't written in English unfortunately talks a lot about questions of such kind.