If we have a continous function $f:R \to R$ with the property that $f(x)\le x$ for every $x$, does the followng hold: $|f(x)-f(y)| \le |x-y|$ for every $x,y$ ? Visually, for me, it seems to be true, but I don't know how to prove it.
EDIT: This was part of a bigger problem. In the proof I arrived at the property $f(x)\le x$ and I thought It was sufficient for the conclusion. I will post the whole problem as well.

This is not true. What about $f(x) = -|2x|$? And even if you change the requirement to $|f(x)|\leq |x|$, we have functions like $f(x) = x\sin(x)$, for which $|f((2n + \frac12)\pi)-f((2n-\frac12)\pi)|$ gets quite a bit larger than $\pi$ for large $n$.