These are undoubtably simple questions, but I have no background in functional analysis and am wondering about them. The first is an exercise from Folland, the second is not, but both are claims I've seen in a paper I'm reading.
Consider the space $C^\infty(\mathbb R)$ of all infinitely differentiable functions on $\mathbb R$. Why does $f_n\rightarrow f$ if and only if $f^{k}_n \rightarrow f^{k}$ uniformly on compact sets for all $k\ge 0$?
Consider the space $C^\infty(\mathbb T)$ of $2\pi$-periodic functions. Why is the operation $(f,g)\rightarrow fg$ (pointwise multiplication) continuous in this topology?
When $E$ is a vector space and $(p_i)_{i\in I}$ is a family of semi-norms, we say that the sequence $\{x_n\}$ converges to $x$ if and only if $p_i(x_n-x)\to 0$ for each $i\in I$.
When we work with the space of smooth functions defined on the real line, we can take $I:=\Bbb N\times\Bbb N$ and $p_{n,d}(f):=\sup_{|x|\leq n}|f^{(d)}(x)|$. To see the equivalence, just see that the compact sets are bounded for one direction, and for the other choose particular compact sets.
When we deal with functions of $C^{\infty}(\mathbb T)$, the semi-norms $p_d(f):=\max_{1\leq k\leq }d\sup_{x\in\mathbb T}|f^{(d)}(x)|$ are natural, as the torus is compact. The map $(f,g)\mapsto fg$ is bilinear. We have $$p_d(fg)\leq \max_{1\leq n\leq d}\sup_{x\in\Bbb T}\sum_{k=0}^n\binom nk|f^{(k)}(x)||g^{(n-k)}(x)|\leq \max_{1\leq n\leq d}2^np_n(f)p_n(g)\leq 2^dp_d(f)p_d(g),$$ which ensures continuity for the topology induced by the semi-norms.