Let $f: \mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be continuous and bounded function, $\phi: \mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be in $C^\infty$. Is it true that $F(x) = \int_{-\infty}^\infty \phi(x-t)f(t)$ is in $C^\infty$? And how to prove it if it's true?
2026-03-29 17:05:40.1774803940
Continuity of convolution
47 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in CONTINUITY
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