Convergence almost everywhere and absolute value

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Is it true that if $(f_n)$ converges almost everywhere to $f$ then $(\vert f_n \vert)$ converges also almost everywhere to $\vert f \vert$ ? Thanks.

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By the "reverse triangle inequality",

$$|\, |f_n(x)| - |f(x)|\,|\le |f_n(x)-f(x)|\longrightarrow 0$$

a.e. as $n\rightarrow\infty$.