The problem is if $f_n(x)$ converges to $y$, the next iteration, $f_{n+1}(x)$ converges to $f(y)$?
$x,y$ are fixed values, but no fixed points.
$f^n$ is the n-composition of $f$
i was studing dynamical systems, and in a problem i conjetured this for a proof, but i can't prove it, can you tell me it is true?, or anyone can help with a hint or counterexample, thanks!
As $n$ approaches infinity, $(n+1)$ also approaches infinity.
Conversely, as $(n+1)$ approaches infinity, $n$ also approaches infinity.
It follows that
$$f^n(x) \rightarrow y,\;\text{as}\;n \rightarrow \infty$$
$$\text{if and only if}$$
$$f^{n+1}(x) \rightarrow y,\;\text{as}\;n \rightarrow \infty$$
However, if $f$ is continuous at $y$, you also get $f(y) = y$.