Looking for the sum of the infinite series:
$\sum_{n=k}^{\infty}\binom{n}{k}p^{k}(1-p)^{n-k}$
You can pull a few terms out to get:
$\frac{p^k}{k!}\sum_{n=k}^{\infty}\frac{n!}{(n-k)!}(1-p)^{n-k}$
Strangely enough, I've actually calculated it for a bunch of different values of $p$ in R and the sum always converges to $\frac{1}{p}$ but I can't seem to derive it on paper. Thanks!
Use the binomial theorem with negative exponent: $$(1-x)^{-(k+1)}=\sum_{m=0}^\infty \binom{-(k+1)}m(-x)^m\ ,\quad |x|<1\ .$$ Note that $$\binom{-(k+1)}m=(-1)^m\binom{k+m}m=(-1)^m\binom{k+m}k$$ so this can be written $$(1-x)^{-(k+1)}=\sum_{m=0}^\infty \binom{k+m}kx^m\ .$$ Substituting $n=k+m$ gives $$(1-x)^{-(k+1)}=\sum_{n=k}^\infty \binom{n}kx^{n-k}\ .$$ As long as $q\ne1$ we have $$\sum_{n=k}^\infty \binom nk p^kq^{n-k}=p^k(1-q)^{-(k+1)}=\frac1p\ .$$
Comment: $q=0$ is not actually a probem. The series is $$\binom kk p^k+\binom{k+1}k p^kq+\binom{k+2}kp^kq^2+\cdots\ .$$ So if $q=0$ the first term is not zero and the whole sum is $$\binom kk p^k=1\times1^k=1=\frac1p\ .$$