Does S converge? (The answer says it converges)
$S=\frac{1}{\ln 2} \sum_{k=1}^\infty \ln (1+\frac{1}{k(k+2)}) \ln k$
My attempt:
Comparison test: $\ln (1+\frac{1}{k(k+2)}) \ln k \lt \ln 2 \ln k$ --- not work;
Cauchy's test: $\lim_{k \to \infty} |\ln (1+\frac{1}{k(k+2)}) \ln k|^{1/k} \lt 1$? --- hard to tell
Ratio test: $\lim_{k \to \infty} |\frac{\ln (1+\frac{1}{(k+1)(k+3)})\ln (k+1)}{\ln (1+\frac{1}{k(k+2)})\ln k} | \lt 1$? --- hard to tell
Integral test: is the series decreasing and founded?
Thanks,
You should use the equivalence $$\ln(1+x)\sim_{x\to 0} x$$ Here as $k$ goes to $\infty$, you get $$\ln(1+\frac{1}{k(k+2)})\ln(k)\sim \frac{\ln(k)}{k(k+2)}\sim \frac{\ln(k)}{k^2}.$$ Then, either you know the criterion of convergence of the serie $\sum_k\ln^a(k)k^b$, or you reprove it in this particular case, noticing for example that there is a constant $M$ such that $$\forall k\in\mathbb{N}^*, \left|\frac{\ln(k)}{k^2}\right|\leq \frac{M}{k^{3/2}}.$$