I am working with pseudo-Boolean and I want to convert the bi-conditional $(a \land b) \iff c$ to inequality or equation.
my attempt was.
First, convert the bi-conditional to two implies $$((a \land b) \to c) \land (c \to (a \land b))$$ Then $$(\lnot(a \land b) \lor c ) \land (\lnot c \lor (a \land b))$$ Then, the left side part become $$(\lnot a \lor\lnot b\lor c)$$ and the right hand side part become $$((\lnot c \lor a) \land (\lnot c \lor b))$$ but to convert the right hand side part to constraints effected negatively on the pseudo-Boolean results.
So, my question is, am I correct in these previous steps or not?
You are correct. By definition $X\leftrightarrow Y\equiv (\lnot X\lor Y)\land(\lnot Y\lor X)$, so... $$(a\land b)\leftrightarrow c ~\equiv~ (\lnot a\lor\lnot b\lor c)\land(\lnot c\lor a)\land(\lnot c\lor b)$$
Using the alternate definition that $X\leftrightarrow Y \equiv (X\land Y)\lor(\lnot X\land\lnot Y)$, will give... $$(a\land b)\leftrightarrow c ~\equiv~ ( a\land b\land c)\lor(\lnot a\land\lnot c)\lor(\lnot b\land\lnot c)$$