Suppose $C\subseteq\mathbb R^n$ is a convex set and $C^o=\varnothing$. Is it necessarily true that $(\overline C)^o=\varnothing$? In general, is this true if $\mathbb R^n$ is replaced by a topological vector space $X$? Or can a counterexample be found?
I know that if $C^o\neq\varnothing$, then $C^o=(\overline C)^o$, so my question is whether this result can be generalized to the case when $C^o=\varnothing$.
Update: It's not true in general topological vector spaces. Indeed, if $X$ is a topological vector space and $Y$ is a proper dense subspace (such examples can be constructed), then $Y$ is convex and has empty interior, but $(\overline Y)^o=X^o=X$ is clearly not empty. Yet, I'm still not sure if the result holds for finite-dimensional vector spaces (in which every proper subspace is closed and thus no proper subspace is dense, so the preceding counterexample doesn't work).
This is true in $\mathbb{R}^n$. Say $n = 3$. If $\overline{C}$ has non empty interior that $C$ is dense in some ball hence it contains the vertices of a tetrahedron (just take a tetrahedron inside the ball and move its vertices slightly to land on a point in $C$). But now by convexity, $C$ must contain the whole solid tetrahedron which contradicts the fact that $C$ has empty interior. In higher dimensions, you can start with a generalized cube and move its vertices slightly to enter $C$.