I'm reading about the Fourier transform and it's properties in The Spectral Analysis of Time Series - Koopmans, L. and I found a particular statement that makes me feel a little bit skeptical.
Lets assume that $x(t)$ and $y(t)$ belong to $L^2( -\pi ,\pi )$ and let $z=x*y$ where $*$ indicates the convolution. The author states that as a consequence of Schwartz inequality we have that $z(t)$ belongs to $L^2(-\pi ,\pi)$.
I know that Fubini's Theorem gives us a similar result but considering $L^1$, not $L^2$ and after a quick search in the site I found also some counterexamples of a similar statement (considering $L^2(R)$ ). So I would like to know if I am missing something, or the author is making further assumptions that I don't see.
Thanks.
I'll use $f,g$ for ease. I'll also assume they are real so that I don't have to conjugate stuff.
$$||f*g||_2^2 =\int |\int f(y)g(x-y)dy|^2 dx = \int \int \int f(y)g(x-y)f(z)g(x-z)dxdydz \le \int \int |f(y)||f(z)| (\int |g(x-y)|^2 dx)^{1/2}(\int |g(x-z)|^2 dx)^{1/2} dydz = \int \int |f(y)||f(z)| ||g||_2^2 \le ||f||_1^2||g||_2^2$$