I was taught in my image processing class that when a mean filter is applied infinite times on a given image, the intensity of each pixel reaches the same value. I understood this that time entirely on intuition. But looking back, I tried to come up with the formal proof of this result but couldn't make any progress. So is there a way to actually proof this notion. Any help would be appreciated.
2026-03-26 16:05:37.1774541137
Convolving an image with mean filter infinite times
35 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in INDUCTION
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