I can't demonstrate that the covariance of G is like in (3): I can't understand because there's that factor "n". Can someone help me please? Thank you!
2026-03-31 12:13:01.1774959181
Covariance of binomial variables
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Just write $G_n(t)$ and $G_n(s)$ as sum of those indicators .
So the product is $n^2G_n(t)G_n(s)=\Sigma_{i,j=1}^{\infty}1_{\xi_i<t}1_{\xi_j<t}$ Now if $i=j$ then $1_{\xi_i<t}1_{\xi_j<t}=1_{\xi_i<min(s,t)}$.If $i \neq j$ then they are independent.
else $n^2G_n(t)G_n(s)=\Sigma_{i\neq j}^{\infty}1_{\xi_i<t}1_{\xi_j<t} + \Sigma_{i,1}^{\infty}1_{\xi_i<min(s,t)}$
Taking expectation you get.
$E(G_n(t)G_n(s))=\frac{1}{n^2}(n(min(s,t))+n(n-1)st)$
so $Cov(G_n(t),G_n(s))=\frac{1}{n^2}(n(min(s,t)+n(n-1)st)-st \\=\frac{1}{n^2}(n(min(s,t))-nst) \\ \implies nCov(G_n(t),G_n(s))=min(s,t)-st$