I have the following elementary problem/question that I do not know how to tackle. It comes with a "math-olympiad-flavor" but I suspect it may be much more difficult than an high-school olympiads problem.
Let $\mathscr{P}$ be a simple polygon (not necessarily convex) in the plane, and such that the number of sides of $\mathscr{P}$ is an odd number $2k+1$.
For each vertex $v$ of $P$ there is an intuitive notion of opposite side (because the number of sides is odd), just label the sides counterclockwise at $v$ from $1$ to $2k+1$, and it would be the one with the label $k+1$.
Now suppose that for each vertex and its corresponding opposite side I consider the triangle the determine in the plane. Let us call $\Delta_v$ this triangle and call it a central triangle.
Is the following:
$$ \mathscr{P} \subseteq \bigcup_{v\in \mathscr{P}} \Delta_v$$
always true? In other words, if one paints all central triangles is it true that the whole polygon is then painted?

For convex polygons, I believe the answer is true. You can use ideas similar to the IMO Windmill problem (2011/2).
First, instead of considering the central triangles, we consider a BEAM that goes through a vertex $P$, splits the remaining vertices into two sets of equal size, rotates clockwise while pivoting around the vertex $P$ until it hits another vertex $Q$. This vertex takes over as the new pivot and continues rotating clockwise. This process continues indefinitely, cycling through all of the vertices.
Number the vertices $1, 2, \ldots 2k+1$ in a clockwise manner.
Claim: When the beams is only going through one vertex, then it splits the remaining vertices evenly.
Proof: The number of vertices that are on one side of the beam is an invariant prior to and after connecting with the next pivot. The result follows.
Claim: If the beam is pivoting about vertex $v$, then the next pivot will be $v-k$.
Proof: Because the polygon is convex, the vertices $v-k$ and $v+k = v-k-1$ uniquely satisfy "split the remaining vertices evenly just prior to and after connecting with the next pivot". Due to the clockwise ordering, the sequence is $v-k-1 \rightarrow v \rightarrow v-1$.
Claim: The area within the polygon which the beam covers, is indeed the union of the central triangle.
Proof: With the pivot at vertex indexed $v$, the prior vertex is $v-k-1$ and the next vertex is $v-k$, so the beam's intersection with the polygon is the triangle $v-k-1, v , v-k$.
Claim: Every point in the convex polygon is covered by this beam (at least once).
Proof: Consider a point $p$ in the polygon that doesn't lie on any diagonal.
Draw a line through this point $p$, and let it pivot about $p$.
As this line pivots about $p$, when the line intersects a vertex, count the number of vertices to the "left" of the line and to the "right" of the line.
When the line pivots $180^\circ$, these two numbers flip over. Consider the expression "left vertices minus right vertices". It
Hence, by "continuity" (applied to the discrete change), it must be equal to 0 after some rotation. Let this vertex be $K$. Then, from the above, the vertex is covered by the central triangle $K-k-1, K, K-k$.
For points $q$ that are on a diagonal, take a sequence of points not on the diagonal whose limit us $q$. The finite union of closed central triangles is closed, and each of the points $p$ lie in a central triangle, hence so does $q$.
Why does this proof work for convex but not for non-convex? Where did we use convexity?
I do not know if the statement is true for non-convex polygons. I suspect it is not. This is not a counter example. It is just a diagram to stare at.