My only exposure to proofs was in a math logic class I took in University. I was wondering if my attempt at proving that $\sqrt{12}$ is irrational is OK.
$$\Big(\frac{m}{n}\Big)^2 = 12$$ $$\Big(\frac{m}{2n}\Big)^2 = 3$$ $$m^2=3*(2n)^2$$
This implies $m$ is even and so $n$ must be odd.
The problem can be reduced to:
$$\Big(\frac{p}{n}\Big)^2 = 3$$
Because $n$ is odd, $p^2$ is odd, so $p$ is odd.
This implies: $$4a+1 = 3(4b+1)$$ $$4a - 12b = 2$$ $$2a - 6b = 1$$
I'm kind of stuck at this point. I know that this can't be true but I don't know how to state it. Any critiques or suggestions? Thanks!
You made it too complicated in my opinion.
First we show that a rational number (different from $0$) times an irrational is irrational.
Proof by contradiction: Let $x\in \mathbb{R}\setminus\mathbb{Q}$, $a,c\in\mathbb{Z}\setminus\{0\}$, $b,d\in \mathbb{N}, d \neq 0$. $$x\cdot \frac{a}{b}=\frac{c}{d} \iff x=\frac{bc}{ad},$$ so $x$ would be rational.
Use $$\sqrt{12}=\sqrt{4\cdot 3} = \sqrt{4} \cdot \sqrt{3} = 2 \cdot \sqrt{3}$$ So $\sqrt{12}$ irrational $\iff \sqrt{3}$ is irrational.
Now, we show $3|p^2 \implies 3|p$: We know 3 is prime so with Euclid's lemma we have $$3|p^2 \implies 3|p \lor 3|p \implies 3|p$$ To prove that $\sqrt{3}$ is irrational, you derive a contradiction: $$\sqrt{3}=\frac{p}{q}\iff 3q^2=p^2 \implies \exists k \in \mathbb{N}: 3k =p$$ $$q^2=3k^2$$ So $q$ and $p$ both have the divisor $3$. Now there are two different ways to use this information. The first proceeds by contradiction, assuming that $p$ and $q$ don't have a common divisor, but as you can show they always have the divisor $3$, you can't write $\sqrt{3}$ as a fraction of numbers without common divisors. This is the more elegant way in my opinion. The other way is to show that both $p$ and $q$ can't be finite, because by repeating this argument we see $3^n|p$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$ and similarly for $q$.
But because of $p,q\in \mathbb{N}$, $3^n> 1+2n$ and the Archimedean principle we get a contradiction.