In Introduction to Topological Manifolds by John Lee the quotient map is defined in the following way
Let $ q : X \to X/$~ be the natural projection sending each element of $X$ to its equivalence class, then $X/$~ together with the quotient topology induced by $q$ is called the quotient space
where $X$ is a topological space and $X/$~ is the quotient space. My question is that the above definition implies $q(x) = [x]$, hence it seems like $q$ isn't even a function as it may map a single point $x$ to many points in the equivalence class $[x]$
Is there an error in my understanding?
If $x,y$ belong to the same equivalence class then
$$ [x]=[y] $$
you are free to use the symbol $[x]$ or $[y]$ to represent the same equivalence class.
Your function $q$ will not be multivalued since
$$ q(x)=[x] $$
$$ q(x)=[y] $$
but as stated previously $[x]$ and $[y]$ are the same element.