Let $$\mathrm{erf}(x) = \frac{2}{\sqrt{\pi}}\int\limits_{0}^x e^{-t^2}dt$$ be the error function. Then, I have tow questions.
For a positive integer $n$, is there a close-form solution of $f_n=\int_{0}^\infty 1- (\mathrm{erf}(x))^n dx$?
Is there a positive $c<\infty$ such that $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\frac{f_n}{\sqrt{\log n}} =c$.
Mathematica returns $1/\sqrt{\pi}$ when $n=1$ and $\sqrt{2/\pi}$ when $n=2$.
Let $\Delta^{n}$ be a portion of the unit $n$-sphere $S^n$ defined by
$$ \Delta^n = \{ \omega \in S^n : 0 < \omega_1 < \cdots < \omega_n < \tfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \omega_{n+1} \}. \tag{1} $$
Then it is not hard to check that for $n \geq 2$,
$$ f_n = 2^{n-\frac{5}{2}} \pi^{-n/2} n! \left( \tfrac{n-3}{2} \right)! \operatorname{Vol}(\Delta^{n-2}). $$
(Here, we use the convention that $\Delta^0$ is a single point and thus $\operatorname{Vol}(\Delta^0) = 1$.) This allows to compute $f_n$ for certain $n$'s:
When $n = 2$, we immediately have $$ f_2 = \sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}. $$
When $n = 3$, then $\Delta^1$ is a portion of the unit circle with arc length $\arctan(1/\sqrt{2})$. So we have $$ f_3 = \frac{6\sqrt{2}}{\pi^{3/2}} \arctan(1/\sqrt{2}). $$
When $n = 4$, it is not hard to check that $\Delta^2$ is a spherical triangle with angles $\frac{\pi}{4}$, $\frac{\pi}{2}$ and $\arctan \sqrt{2}$. Consequently the area of $\Delta^2$ is $\frac{\pi}{4} - \arctan(1/\sqrt{2})$, which is equal to $\frac{1}{2}\arctan(1/\sqrt{8})$. So we have $$ f_4 = \frac{12\sqrt{2}}{\pi^{3/2}} \arctan(1/\sqrt{8}). $$
I am not sure about $n =5$, but it probably requires some well-established theory on orthoschemes to compute the volume of $\Delta^3$. So I will stop here.
Instead, let us investiguate the asymptotic behavior of $f_n$.
Intuition. Let $X_1, X_2, \cdots$ be i.i.d. such that the common CDF $F_X$ is given by $\mathrm{erf}$. (In particular, $X_i$ are a.s. non-negative.) Let $M_n = \max\{X_1, \cdots, X_n\}$. Then
$$ \Bbb{P}(M_n > x) = 1 - \Bbb{P}(M_n \leq x) = 1 - F_X(x)^n = 1 - \operatorname{erf}(x)^n. $$
Consequently we have
$$ f_n = \int_{0}^{\infty} (1 - \operatorname{erf}(x)^n) \, dx = \Bbb{E}M_n. $$
In general, $M_n$ has roughly the same asymptotics as the last $n$-quantile of the distribution of $X$. In other words, if $x_n$ is chosen so that $F_X(x_n) = 1 - n^{-1}$ then $M_n$ and $x_n$ has roughly the same order. But in our case, it is not hard to show that $x_n \sim (\log n)^{1/2}$. Thus we expect that $f_n \sim (\log n)^{1/2}$.
Solution. Apply the substitution $x \mapsto x \sqrt{\log n}$ to write
$$ \frac{f_n}{\sqrt{\log n}} = \int_{0}^{\infty} (1 - \operatorname{erf}(x \sqrt{\log n})^n ) \, dx. $$
In order to facilitate this identity, we first make the following simple observation:
Indeed, this is a direct consequence of the L'Hospital's rule. Now fix any $R > 1$. By the lemma, there exists a sufficiently large $N = N(R)$ such that for $x \geq R$ and $n \geq N$ we have a uniform estimate
$$ 1 - \operatorname{erf}(x \sqrt{\log n})^n \leq n \operatorname{erf}(x \sqrt{\log n}) \leq \frac{C}{x \sqrt{\log n}} n^{1-x^2} \leq \frac{C}{x\sqrt{\log n}} N^{1 - x^2} $$
for some constant $C = C(R) > 0$. Thus it follows that
$$ 0 \leq \int_{R}^{\infty} (1 - \operatorname{erf}(x \sqrt{\log n})^n) \, dx \leq \frac{C}{\sqrt{\log n}} \int_{R}^{\infty} \frac{N^{1 - x^2}}{x} \, dx \xrightarrow{n\to\infty} 0. $$
On the other hand, for any fixed $x > 0$ we have
$$ \operatorname{erf}(x \sqrt{\log n})^n = \left(1 - \frac{1+o(1)}{x\sqrt{\pi \log n}} n^{-x^2} \right)^n \xrightarrow{n\to\infty} \begin{cases} 0, & x < 1 \\ 1, & x \geq 1. \end{cases} $$
Thus by the bounded convergence theorem, we have
$$ \int_{0}^{R} (1 - \operatorname{erf}(x \sqrt{\log n})^n) \, dx \xrightarrow{n\to\infty} 1. $$
Therefore we have
$$ \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{f_n}{\sqrt{\log n}} = 1. $$