Can this be a valid definition?
For each $\epsilon>0$, there exists $K \in \Bbb N$ such that if $n\ge K$, then $|a_n-a|\le\epsilon$.
Should I use "$<\epsilon$" or "$\le \epsilon$"?
Can this be a valid definition?
For each $\epsilon>0$, there exists $K \in \Bbb N$ such that if $n\ge K$, then $|a_n-a|\le\epsilon$.
Should I use "$<\epsilon$" or "$\le \epsilon$"?
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The following statements
and
are equivalent.
Proof of 1.$\Rightarrow$2.
For any $\epsilon>0$, we have $\epsilon/2>0$. Therefore by 1., there exists $K\in \mathbb{N}$ such that $n\geq K \Rightarrow |a_n-a|\leq \epsilon/2<\epsilon$, which means 2. is true.
Proof of 2.$\Rightarrow$1.
Trivial because $|a_n-a|< \epsilon$ implies $|a_n-a|\leq \epsilon$