Two norms $F,G$ are equivalent when there are constants $a,b$ such that $aF \le G \le bF$. I'm reading about this idea, and so far I've seen that equivalence of norms implies that the underlying space $X$ has the same topology with respect to either norm. Maybe it preserves even more properties than this too.
But I'm finding it very difficult to use this property when doing proofs or problems because although it's very simple to state, I don't immediately see what it is saying. In comparison, when you define 'equivalence' in other settings, like in the definition of an isomorphism of abelian groups or a continuous map, it's very clear that a certain operation or object is being preserved as you pass across a map.
To be concrete, here are my questions:
(1) Is there another way to characterize when norms are equivalent that might provide more intuition for what it says about is being preserved
and (2) is there a way to show that this definition is the one you want by starting with something more fundamental (like saying that the norms induce the same topology) and then proving that it's equivalent to the stated definition?
Any intuition for the definition would be helpful for either of these questions.
Maybe it will be useful to consider an example of two norms $F$ and $G$ of a vector space $X$ not being equivalent to each other. What it means is that at least one of the quantities $\sup\limits_{x \in X}\frac{F(x)}{G(x)}$ or $\sup\limits_{x \in X}\frac{G(x)}{F(x)}$ is unbounded, i.e. there is a sequence $(x_n)_{n \geq 0}$ of vectors in the space such that $\frac{F(x_n)}{G(x_n)}$ or $\frac{G(x_n)}{F(x_n)}$ diverges to $+\infty$ when $n \to \infty$.
Intuitively, if a norm $G$ is equivalent to a norm $F$, $G$ neither stretches too much, nor shortens too much the lengths of the vectors already assigned by $F$. The "new" $G-$length of every vector is within a bound of its "old" $F-$length: $\forall x \in X, \quad aF(x) \leq G(x) \leq bF(x)$. There are not parts of the space stretched or shrunk arbitrarily much.
For an example of two nonequivalent norms, consider the space $C^2([0,1],\mathbb{R})$ of real twice continuously differentiable functions defined on $[0,1]$. Define the two norms $F(x(t)) = \sup\limits_{t \in [0,1]}|x(t)|$ and $G(x(t)) = |x(0)| + \sup\limits_{t \in [0,1]}|x'(t)|$. Now, if we look at the sequence $x_n(t) = \sin(n\pi t)$, then the $F-$norm of every $x_n$ is $1$ while $G(x_n) = n\pi$. The unit $F-$sphere is torn away to infinity when the $G$ norm is used.