$(a)$Suppose that $\{x^{(n)}\}^{(\infty)}_{(n=m)}$ is a sequence of points in a metric space $(X,d)$, and let $L \in X$. We say that $L$ is a limit point of $\{x^{(n)}\}^{(\infty)}_{(n=m)}$ iff for every $N \ge m$ and $\epsilon \gt 0$ there exists an $n \ge N$ such that $d(x^{(n)}, L) \le \epsilon$.
$(b)$Suppose that $\{x^{(n)}\}^{(\infty)}_{(n=m)}$ is a sequence of points in a metric space $(X,d)$, and let $L \in X$. We say that $L$ is a limit point of $\{x^{(n)}\}^{(\infty)}_{(n=m)}$ iff for every $\epsilon \gt 0$ there exists an $n$ such that $d(x^{(n)}, L) \le \epsilon$. ?
Is $(a)$ equivalent to $(b)$? Obviously $(a) \Rightarrow (b)$, and for the converse let $N \in \mathbb Z$ and let $d_0 = min\{d(x^{(i)}, L), i \lt N\}$, then there exist $m$ such that $d(x^{(m)}, L) \lt d_0/2$.
Is this reasoning correct? (feel free to edit the format or to ask for clarifications and thank you for your time)
Suppose there is an n where x(n)=L. This would make L a limit point by (b), but not by (a)