On Proof Wiki, the definition of an open set is stated as
Let $(M,d)$ be a metric space and let $U\subset M$, then $U$ is open iff for all $y\in U$, there exists $\epsilon \in \mathbb{R}_{>0}$ such that $B_M(y;\epsilon) \subset U$
Then there's a remark that states
It is important to note that, in general, the values of $\epsilon$ depend on $y$. That is, it is not required that $\exists \epsilon \in \mathbb{R}_{>0}$ s.t. $\forall y \in U$ s.t. $B_M(y;\epsilon) \subset U$
I don't understand quite understand the remark, could someone please clearly explain this and perhaps provide an example? I believe I understand the definition, but the remark is throwing me off.
As an example consider for instance $\mathbb R^2$ with its usual (Euclidean) metric structure (so distance look like what we are used to in the plane). Now consider the set $\{x\in \mathbb R^2\mid d(x,(0,0))<1\}$. This is the interior of the circle with centre the origin and unit radius. Now, this set is open, since for any point $p$ in this set, there is a radius $\epsilon>0$ such that a the ball with centre $p$ and radius $\epsilon$ is entirely contained in the set. But, the radius $\epsilon$ depends on the position of the point $p$. When $p$ is very close to the circumference of the circle the value of $\epsilon$ must be chosen to be very small.
It should be noted that it is actually extremely rare that in a metric space a set will be 'uniformly' open, in the sense that there will be a single $\epsilon$ that fits for all points in the set. As an extra exercise, try to find examples of such situations.