I'm a bit confused about the following definition:
Let $\rho_1:G \to Aut(V_1)$, $\rho: G \to Aut(V_2) $ be two representations of the same group $G$. Then a tensor product of representations is defined as: $$ \rho_1 \otimes\rho_2:G \to Aut(V_1 \otimes V_2)\\ g \mapsto (\rho_1\otimes\rho_2)(g):= \rho_1(g)\otimes \rho_2(g) $$
Question: Isn't object $\rho_1(g)\otimes \rho_2(g)$ belongs to something like $Aut(V_1)\otimes Aut(V_2)$ (since $\rho_i(g) \in Aut(V_i)$), and not to $Aut(V_1 \otimes V_2)$?. But, honestly, then I don't understand if the tensor product of two non-abelian group is even defined.
If $A:V_1\to V_1$ and $B:V_2\to V_2$ are linear transformations, then $A\otimes B$ is defined to be the unique linear transformation $V_1\otimes V_2\to V_1\otimes V_2$ that satisfies $(A\otimes B)(x\otimes y)=A(x)\otimes B(y)$.