I am just getting into topology, and I have a doubt regarding open sets.
Let $(X, \mathcal{T})$ be a topological space. Given an open set of $X$, $A$, and subset of $X$, $B$ such that
$$A\cap B \in \mathcal{T}$$ $$A\cup B \in \mathcal{T}$$
Can I conclude that $B$ is also an open set? That is, if I have an arbitrary set of $X$ whose intersection and union with an open set are themselves open sets, does this imply the arbitrary set is also open?
No. It does not imply that the set is open. For instance:
Let $X= \left\lbrace a, b, c\right\rbrace$ and consider the topological space $(X, \tau)$ where $\tau=\left\lbrace\varnothing, X, \left\lbrace a \right\rbrace\right\rbrace$.
Let $A=\left\lbrace a \right\rbrace$, let $B=\left\lbrace b, c \right\rbrace$.
Then,
$A \cup B= X \ \in \ \tau $,
$A \cap B= \varnothing \ \in \ \tau$.
However $B \ \notin \ \tau$.