Suppose that $k$ and $k'$ are fields such that $k\subset k'$ and $[k':k]=n$, where $n$ is an positive integer.
Do we have $[k'(x):k(x)]=[k':k]$? Why?
Thanks for your help!
Suppose that $k$ and $k'$ are fields such that $k\subset k'$ and $[k':k]=n$, where $n$ is an positive integer.
Do we have $[k'(x):k(x)]=[k':k]$? Why?
Thanks for your help!
As you tagged the question with rational-functions I assume that $x$ is an indeterminate (i.e. an element that is transcendental over $k$ and hence also over $k'$).
Yes. It probably is not a surpise that a $k$-basis $\mathcal{B}$ of $k'$ is also a $k(x)$ basis of $k'(x)$. We get there for example as follows.